Structured Self-Development Level 2 Question
and Answer (Module 1, 2, 3)
Please Read Below Questions prior to Test
Please Read Below Questions prior to Test
Q- What is the purpose of adversary collection
activities?
To obtain and exploit indicators that will negatively
impact a mission
Q- What are the names of the army's intelligence functions?
All-Source Intelligence Human Intelligence (HUMINT)
Imagery Intelligence (IMINT)
Signals Intelligence (SIGINT)
Measurement and Signatures Intelligence (MASINT)
Technical Intelligence (TECHINT)
Counterintelligence (CI)
Imagery Intelligence (IMINT)
Signals Intelligence (SIGINT)
Measurement and Signatures Intelligence (MASINT)
Technical Intelligence (TECHINT)
Counterintelligence (CI)
Q- The Completed DA Form 5434 will be
Forwarded from which of the following organization?
The gaining MACOM….
The Losing Activity……
The Unit of ……
Q-An adversary analyst uses bits
and pieces of information and data to develop what outcome?
His intelligence estimate
His intelligence estimate
Q- What are the
three sub-intelligence discipline in signal intelligence (SIGINT)?
COMINT, ELINT, FISINT
Q- What are the two classifications of critical information?
Classified
and unclassified
Q- Sponsorship support consist of
following
Training for youth
sponsors
Training for unit …..
Q- In which step of the OPSEC process do
you select and implement tentative OPSEC measures?
Assessment of risk
Q- What does an adversary use to
formulate the analyst's perception of our operations?
Indicators
Q- Operation security (OPSEC)
is used to identify which of the following?
Actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence
systems
Q- Family with foreign born spouses will receive support and
assistance that indicates the following:
Cross- Culture……..
Culture mediation ….
A Comprehensive
Q- Which
of the following describes mentoring?
A future-oriented development activity
focused on growing in the profession
Q- Operation Security (OPSEC) is used to identify which of the
following?
Actions that can be
observed by adversary intelligence systems
Q- What are the three primary
questions to ask when conducting a preliminary inquiry?
Was an offense committed?
Was the Soldier involved in the offense?
What is the character and military record of the suspect?
Was the Soldier involved in the offense?
What is the character and military record of the suspect?
Q- Sponsorship is a --------------- program?
Commander’s
Q- What DA Form will you use when conducting quarterly
counseling?
DA Form 2166-8-1
DA Form 2166-8-1
Q- Which of the following entries describe non-judicial
punishment?
Administrative reprimands and
admonitions
Q- When does the decision period start?
When the soldier receives notification
of formal proceedings under Article 15 and has a copy of DA Form 2627 with items 1 and 2
completed.
Q- The _______ provides basic housekeeping items that
incoming and outgoing family can?
Landing Closet
Q- The commander who is imposing punishment may proceed with
a hearing unless a Soldier decides to do which of the following?
Demand trial by court martial
Demand trial by court martial
Q- Soldiers are given the opportunity, normally within 24 hours,
to accept an Article 15. In which of the following stages of the judicial
process does this occur?
Decision
Decision
Q- What is the purpose of
non-judicial punishment?
Deny pass or other privileges
Q- What is the minimum time requirement to be eligible to
perform as the senior rater?
60
60
Q- What year was the position of Sergeant Major of the
Army established?
1966
1966
Q- In what year did the Army formalize and expand the
functions of the NCO support channel?
1976
1976
Q- Which of the following is the keystone document in the
joint operations series?
JP 3-0
JP 3-0
Q- When does the decision period start?
Upon conclusion of the preliminary
investigation
Q- What type of process is used within the Operations
Security (OPSEC) program to protect critical information?
A five step process
Q- Which system applies to those Soldiers who are not
amenable to correction by non-punitive or non-judicial method of correction or
discipline?
Court-martial system
Q- During a court-martial, who
represents the government?
Trial counsel
Q- What three things
should you accomplish in the process of determining the credibility of evidence and information?
- Determine if the act is in violation
of standards or professional conduct, or if it is a breach of discipline or
insubordination.
- Prepare your recommendation in memorandum format or as required by local directive
- Determine whether or not the Soldier committed an act.
- Prepare your recommendation in memorandum format or as required by local directive
- Determine whether or not the Soldier committed an act.
Q- Which system applies to those Soldiers who are not
amenable to correction by nonpunitive or nonjudicial methods of correction or
discipline?
Court-martial system
Q- Soldiers and families returning to the United States from
overseas duty station ……
Reintegration
Q- The connection between the chain of command and the NCO
support channel is the ________
Senior NCO
Q- The _________ is the primary assistant and advisor to the
platoon leader, with the responsibilities of…….
Platoon Sergeant
Q- Which of the following relationships is prohibited?
Any Relationship between ………. And
Any Relationship between ……….
Q- Which
branches of service make up the nation’s principal maritime force?
Navy and marine corps
Navy and marine corps
Q- Which of the following presents five
broad national security challenges likely to require the employment of joint
forces?
The Strategic Environment
Q- The goal of the court-martial system is to do
what?
Administer Justice
Q- An act for which the law provides a
penalty is called what?
A crime
Q- What are the two types of court-martial
counsel?
Trail and Defense Counsel
Q- During a court-martial, who represents the
government?
Trial Counsel
Q- Which of the following is the maximum time
limit a commander may impose for restriction
14 Days
Q- Which legal measurements are primarily tools for teaching
proper standards of conduct and performance and do not constitute
punishment?
Nonpunitive measures
Q- Which of the following
is the maximum time limit a commander may impose for restriction?
14 days
Q- What are the two types
of court-martial counsel?
Defense Counsel
Trial Counsel
Trial Counsel
Q- Which of the following
is not a characteristic of effective counseling?
Punishment
Q- What process do leaders use to review the demonstrated performance and
potential of their subordinates?
Counseling
Counseling
Q- When does the EO Policy apply?
To those working……..
Both On and Off post…..
Q- Sexual Harassment is form of
__________ discrimination?
Gender
Q-Interpersonal communication occurs at
which two level?
Content and Process
Q-________ Communication is vital assets
in promotion organizational performance, moral……
Efficient
Q -As you receive behavior cues to
communication, you assign ________ to each communication…
Purpose
Q- A(an) situation is one involving two or more individuals who take
account of each…
Group
Q- what is the first step of the five performance steps that
must be completed prior to conducting a counseling session?
Determine the type of counseling
Q- Which DA Form will you use when conducting
a mandatory, face to face performance counseling?
DA 4856
Q- When is counseling conducted for NCO's?
Within
30 days after the beginning of the rating period and quarterly thereafter
Q- Which of the following describes
mentoring?
A future-oriented development activity
focused on growing in the profession
Q- Which of the following is not a
characteristic of effective counseling?
Punishment
Q- What process do leaders use to review the
demonstrated performance and potential of their subordinates?
Counseling
Q- Which military operations are ongoing
routine activities that establish, shape, maintain, and refine relations with
other nations and domestic civil authorities?
Major operations and campaigns
Q- Which branch of the US Armed Forces is
composed of naval, land, air, space, and cyberspace forces, both combat and
support, not otherwise assigned, that includes the necessary forces and
capabilities to operate and support the Navy and Marine Corps, other military
services, and joint forces?
Navy
Q- Which branch of the US Armed Forces is
composed of land combat and service forces, with includes aviation, water
transport, and space and cyberspace?
Marine Corps
Q- Which of the following are performance steps that must be completed to
prepare for and conduct a counseling session?
Prepare for counseling
- Gather support material
- Determine the type of counseling
- Gather support material
- Determine the type of counseling
Q- Which DA Form will you
use when conducting mandatory, face to face performance counseling?
DA Form 67-9
DA Form 67-9
Q- When is counseling
conducted for NCOs?
Within 30 days after the beginning of a rating period and quarterly thereafter
Within 30 days after the beginning of a rating period and quarterly thereafter
Q- What is the first step
of the five performance steps that must be completed prior to conducting a
counseling session?
Determine the type of counseling
Determine the type of counseling
Q- Which branch of the U.S.
armed forces is responsible for the preparation of forces necessary for the
effective prosecution of war?
Army
Army
Q- Which of the following
additional principles are relevant to how the Armed Forces use combat
power across the range of military operations?
restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy
restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy
Q- Human communication is best
understood as system where sender are _______receivers ….
Simultaneously
Q- Communication is not complete if the
____ doesn’t listen.
Receiver
Q- Effective Army Writing transmits a
clear message in a single, rapid reading and….
Usage, Mechanics, Grammar
Q- What are two reasons to avoid using
passive voice?
It hides the doers……..
It creates sentences …….
Q- Error in spelling grammar and
punctuation can leave a(n) ……..
Negative
Q- Who is the principle military advisor to the President,
the National Security Council (NSC), the homeland security council (HSC), and
the secretary of defense?
The chairman of the joint chiefs
Q-
Which military operations comprise extended-duration, large-scale
operations that usually involve combat?
Major Operations and campaigns
Q- On what are the principles of joint
operations formed?
Joint publication keystone document
Q- Which of the following are narrative rules
for constructing bulleted comments?
Bulleted comments are mandatory
Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines
Use specific examples only once
Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines
Use specific examples only once
Q- Which of the following are valid senior rater entries in
the overall performance section?
Poor, Fair, Successful
Q- What links
the day-to-day observation of the rated soldier to the long-term evaluation of
the rated Soldier's potential by HQDA selection boards?
The rater's comments
Q- In which section of the senior rater's portion of an
evaluation report would one document if a senior rater does not meet minimum
time requirements for evaluation of the rated NCO?
Section e
Q- The APFT entry may be left blank in which of the following
situations?
60 years of age and older
If the APFT has not been taken within 12 months of the "THRU" date of the report
If the APFT has not been taken within 12 months of the "THRU" date of the report
Q- Which senior rater entry in the overall
performance section denotes performance that may require additional training/observation
and non-recommendation for promotion?
Fair
Q- Which of the following ranks are not part
of the formal chain of command?
Command
Sergeant Major
Q- Which military operations comprise
small-scale, limited-duration operations, such as strikes, raids, and peace
enforcement, which might include combat depending on the circumstances?
Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations.
Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations.
Q- On what are the principles of joint
operations formed?
Traditional principles of war
Traditional principles of war
Q- Which military operations are
ongoing routine activities that establish, shape, maintain, and refine
relations with other nations and domestic civil authorities?
Military Engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence.
Military Engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence.
Q- Which of the following are
narrative rules for constructing bulleted comments?
Bulleted comments are mandatory
Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines
Use specific examples only once
Bulleted comments are mandatory
Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines
Use specific examples only once
Q- Who was the first sergeant major of the
army?
William O. Wooldridge
William O. Wooldridge
Q- Which of the following
ranks are responsible for developing, maintaining, and utilizing the full range
of their Soldier's potential?
Sergeants
Sergeants
Q- Which of the following
ranks serve as the senior enlisted advisor and consultant to the chief of staff
of the army?
Sergeant Major
Sergeant Major
Q- What regulation
formalized the NCO support channel and expanded its functions in December
1976?
AR 600-20
AR 600-20
Q- In what year did the Army consolidate all enlisted ranks into
seven pay grade, five of which were noncomissioned officers?
1920
1920
Q- What does the U.S. Army define as, "the process of putting
our professional values into action"?
Ethics
Ethics
Q- The MSAF program is intended to help you become a better leader by
better understanding your own_____ and ____.
strengths, weaknesses
strengths, weaknesses
Q- The Multi-Source Assessment and Feedback (MSAF) program is under the
organization and direction of the ______
Center for Army Leadership (CAL)
Center for Army Leadership (CAL)
Q- Which of the following terms comprise stages of awareness?
Committed, Thoughtful, Habitual
Committed, Thoughtful, Habitual
Q- When SOP is submitted for peer
review, it is normally sent….
Platoon leader, platoon
sergeant, Squad leader
Q- You can identify the____ for
distribution by selecting the …..
Target audience
Q- Reproducing and distribution
requirements should be determined in ……
Local (Unit)
Q- Which security classification would
you apply to and SOP in which the…
Top Secret
Q- The development of SOP’s based on
__________ command policies.
Local
Q- The ________course explores the
expectations family members have of the army…..
Level
III
Q- The goal of the army family team
building program is to assist family members of soldiers by:
Preparing individuals….
Enhancing personal…….
Q- The AFTB training program consists of
level I, II, III, _________ and ____________ courses.
Master Trainer…
Program Manager
Q- A ___________ Overseas and supports
all company Family Readiness Groups (FRGS) …..
Rear Detachment
Commander (RDC)
Q- Which of the following are techniques
to enforces the EO program policies?
Lead by examples
Q- _____ is a complex classification of
human characteristics related to personal …..
Diversity
Q- The goal of the _________
is to facilitate an informal resolution, when possible of the matter .
EOL
Q- Which of the following ranks are responsible for
developing, maintaining, and utilizing the full range of their Soldier's
potential?
Sergeants
Q- Which of the following ranks are
considered to have the greatest impact on soldiers due to their oversight of
the soldier daily task
Sergeants
Q- In 1851, a new uniform requirement
establishment a system of branch colors, and chevrons reverted to the
point-down position. In what year did the chevrons return to the point-up
position?
1902
Q- Which of the following terms can be
defined as standards by which one should act based on values?
Ethics
Q- The
Multi-Source Assessment and Feedback (MSAF) program is under the organization
and direction of the ______
Center for Army Leadership (CAL)
Q- The
Serious Incident Report (SIR) system provides which of the following agencies
with early notice to the possibility or occurrence of a serious incident?
Headquarters, Department
of the Army
Q- The reporting of terrorist activities falls
under which reportable serious incident category?
Category 1
Q - How many digits does the SIR number
always contain?
6
Q- The reporting of war
crimes falls under which reportable serious incident category?
Category 1
Q- Which
of the following is a summary document that provides information on collective
training objectives, related individual training objectives, resource
requirements, and applicable evaluation procedures for a type of organization?
Training and evaluation
outline
Q-
The process of building a unit’s capability to conduct full spectrum operations
over time describes which of the following?
ARFORGEN
Q-
__________is the ability to meet the physical demands of any combat or duty
position
Physical Readiness
Q- ___________provides the training and
leader development methodology that forms the foundation for developing
competent and confident Soldiers in the conduct
ADRP 7-0
Q- The Army PRT system is
__________incorporating physically demanding activities that prepare Soldier
and units to accomplish the physical requirements
performance based
Q- The long-range training
plan covers which of the following for ARFORGEN units?
The period leading up to
at least one readiness aim point
Q- The
use of effective training to challenge leaders and organizations with uncertain
conditions is a tenet of which principle of training?
Train as you fight
Q- The reporting of incidents involving the
wrongful possession, manufacture, or distribution of controlled substances,
including narcotics, drugs, or marijuana, in the quantities of 100 grams or
more (except for LSD, which is 6 grams or more) falls under which reportable
serious incident category?
Category2
Q- what are the three types of serious
incident reports (SIR)?
Add-on, Correction, Original
Submission
Q- What term describe the systematic increase
in the intensity or duration of PRT activities?
Progression
Q- Which of the following choices are
gradually increased to produce the desired physiological effect?
Exercise Volume, Duration, and
intensity
Q- who is responsible for the overall operation of the range
before, during, and after live
firing?
The OIC
The OIC
Q- Ensuring that firers enter and exit
the firing line at the entry or exit point is an example of which of the
following?
Range safety program protocols
Range safety program protocols
Q- who is responsible for the safe
operation of the range?
The RSO
Q- Direct observation,
assessment, and honest feedback are tenets of which of the following
leader-development principles?
Take responsibility for developing subordinate leaders
Q- Which
of the following is a responsibility of the unit ammunition detail?
Ensure
ammunition is broken down properly
Q- Who
is responsible for the overall operation of the range before, during, and after
live firing?
OIC
Q- A
combination of combat and operational stressors will produce which of the
following?
COSRs
Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a dynamic warm-up consisting of 10 exercises that appropriately prepare Soldiers for more intense PRT activities?
Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a dynamic warm-up consisting of 10 exercises that appropriately prepare Soldiers for more intense PRT activities?
Preparation Drill (PD)
Q- Who serves as
the primary trainer for enlisted Soldiers, crews, and small teams?
NCO's
Q- How often should strength and mobility training be
conducted?
Every other day
Q- Who assists the OIC and safety officer by
performing duties (for example, supervising enlisted personnel supporting the
LFX) as required?
Range NCOIC
Q- Which of the
following choices are responsible for repairing rifles and replacing parts, as
required?
Unit Armorer
Q- Which stress-reduction program includes trust and confidence in
its foundation?
Leadership, plans, training
Q- Which of the following statements
defines posttraumatic events (PTEs)?
An event which causes an
individual or group to experience intense feelings of terror, horror,
helplessness, and/or hopelessness
Q-
What are the two levels of the Army maintenance system?
Field and sustainment
Q- which of the following
is the foundation of army maintenance?
performance observations
Q- what are the four core maintenance processes?
performance observation
equipment services
fault repair
single standard repair
performance observations
Q- what are the four core maintenance processes?
performance observation
equipment services
fault repair
single standard repair
Q- Which of the following choices is a responsibility of the
unit ammunition detail?
Ensure ammunition is broken down
properly
Q- Which of the following choices provide
professional ministry support to leaders in fulfilling their combat and
operational stress identification and intervention responsibilities?
Unit Ministry Team (UMT)
Q- Commanders
are required to take which of the following steps once a decision is made to
request a routine/nonemergency CDE?
Notify the UMT
Q- Which of
the following is an example of an operational
stressor?
Prolonged exposure to extreme
geographical environments such as desert or arctic cold
Q- The ability to meet the
physical demands of any combat or duty position, accomplish the mission, and
continue to fight and win defines which of the following?
Physical readiness
Q-Precision,
progression, and integration are the components of which of the following?
The principles of exercise
Q-Which
of the following publications provides the training and leader development
methodology that forms the foundation for developing competent and confident
Soldiers?
Fm 7-0
Q- what are the two levels
of the army maintenance system?
field and sustainment
Q- the purpose of the army maintenance system is:
generate/regenerate combat power
preserve the capital investment of weapons systems
to enable mission accomplishment
field and sustainment
Q- the purpose of the army maintenance system is:
generate/regenerate combat power
preserve the capital investment of weapons systems
to enable mission accomplishment
Q- Which maintenance function involves
restoring an item to a completely serviceable or operational condition?
overhaul
overhaul
Q- Which
of the following choices exemplify mild stress reactions of a physical nature?
Jumpiness, Cold Sweat
Q- Which of the following choices is a form
of Combat and Operational Stress Reaction (COSR) and most likely to occur in
poorly trained undisciplined units?
Misconduct stress behavior
Q- Which of the following choices is defined
as a psychiatric illness that can occur following a traumatic event (such as
combat exposure) in which there was a threat of injury or death to you or
someone else?
Post-traumatic stress disorder
Q- Which of the following identifies the purpose of the toughening
phase of PRT?
Develop foundational fitness and fundamental movement skills
Develop foundational fitness and fundamental movement skills
Q- Which form does the drive official issue to identify a
licensed operator?
346
Q- On what date does an Army operator's license expire?
same date as the individual's state driver's license
346
Q- On what date does an Army operator's license expire?
same date as the individual's state driver's license
Q- what is the expiration date on a
limited permit?
one year from the date of issue
one year from the date of issue
Q- Which of the following assets are generally available to
the leadership in tactical environments?
All apply
Q- Which of the following choices may prevent the
individual from performing their duties or create a concern for personal safety
or the safety of others?
Severe stress reactions
Q- The Troop Leading Procedures (TLP) consist of how many
steps?
8
Q- The reporting of incidents involving material damage that
seriously degrades unit operational or training readiness falls under which
reportable serious incident category?
Category 1
Category 1
Q- Which regulation defines the
occurrence of an action or situation as a serious incident that may have
important or dangerous results?
AR 190–45
AR 190–45
Q- the reporting of terrorist activities
falls under which reportable serious incident category?
Category 1
Category 1
Q- What are the three types of serious
incident reports (SIR)?
SIR original submission Add–on Correction
SIR original submission Add–on Correction
Q- Training to reach an accepted proficiency level is a
tenet of which principle of training?
Train to standard
Q- Unit training involves how many principles?
11
Q- Which principle of training focuses on individual and
small-unit skills?
Train fundamentals first
Q- Which of the following choices are involved with recovery
operations?
Dedicated,
Self, and Like
Q- The reporting of racially or
ethnically motivated criminal acts falls under which reportable serious
incident category?
Category 2
Category 2
Q- Which core maintenance process specifies maintenance
actions in accordance with the designer and engineer specifications?
Equipment services
Q- The reporting of war crimes falls under which reportable
serious incident category?
Category 1
Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a dynamic warm-up consisting of 10 exercises that appropriately prepare Soldiers for more intense PRT activities?
Preparation Drill
Category 1
Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a dynamic warm-up consisting of 10 exercises that appropriately prepare Soldiers for more intense PRT activities?
Preparation Drill
Q- PRT activity tasks, conditions, and
standards are derived from which of the following?
the
mission analysis of the physical demands of unit mission - core mission essential task list
(C-METL) or directed mission essential task list (D- METL)
- warrior tasks and battle drills (WTBDs)
- warrior tasks and battle drills (WTBDs)
Q- who serves as the primary trainer for
enlisted soldiers, crews, and small teams?
NCOs
Q-what term describes the systematic increase in the intensity or duration of PRT activities?
Progression
NCOs
Q-what term describes the systematic increase in the intensity or duration of PRT activities?
Progression
Q-
Which level of maintenance involves on-system
maintenance, repair and return to the user, including maintenance actions
performed by operators?
Field Maintenance
Q- The reporting of racially or ethically
motivated criminal acts falls under which reportable serious incident category?
Category 2
Q- Which regulation defines the occurrence of
an action or situation as a serious incident that may have important or
dangerous results?
AR 190-45
Q- Which regulation prescribe the policy and
procedures for the conduct of the Army Physical Fitness Training Program and
applies to all Soldiers, functional branches, units and operating agencies?
AR 350-58
Q- Which of the
following choices represent Army principles of training?
Train to standard, Train to sustain, Train as you will fight
Train to standard, Train to sustain, Train as you will fight
Q- which regulation prescribes the
policy and procedure for the conduct of the army physical fitness training
program and applies to all soldiers, functional branches, units, and operating
agencies?
AR 350-1
AR 350-1
Q- who conducts a safety orientation
before each schedule live-firing exercise (LFX)?
Range Safety Officer.
Range Safety Officer.
Q- PRT
activity tasks, conditions, and standards are derived from which of the
following?
W TBD, C-METL, Mission analysis of
the physical demands of unit missions.
Q- Which of the following choices exemplify
mild emotional stress reactions?
Anxiety, Nightmares
Q- In which of the following situations is it
proper to refer a Soldier for a Commander Directed Evaluation (CDE)?
If the Soldier has a severe mental
or substance use disorder
Q- Which of the following choices refer to
positive outcomes that result from stress exposure and traumatic experience
that include improved relationships, renewed hope for life, an improved
appreciation of life, an enhanced sense of personal strength, and spiritual
development?
Post-traumatic growth
Q- Who is the only
person authorized to request GREEN TIME, HOLD FIRE, or TERMINATION OF GREEN
TIME?
Officer in Charge (OIC)
Officer in Charge (OIC)
Q- Which of the following assists fires
with weapon-related problems and ensures that all fires observe safety
regulations and procedures?
Assistant Instructor
Assistant Instructor
Q- Which of the following choices occur
when you combine stressors with effective leadership and strong peer
relationships to enhance individual and unit performances?
adaptive stress reactions
adaptive stress reactions
Q- Which of the following choices
constitutes grounds for an emergency referral for a soldier experiencing CoSRs?
A severe mental or substance use disorder.
Intent to inflict harm to self or others.
A severe mental or substance use disorder.
Intent to inflict harm to self or others.
Actual,
attempted, or threatened violence
Q- Which
principle of unit training focuses on those tasks most essential to mission
accomplishment?
Train to develop adaptability
Q- Who ensures
that their Soldier's demonstrate proficiency in their individual military
occupational specialty (commonly known as MOS) skills, warrior tasks, and
battle drills?
NCO
Q- Which core maintenance process uses operator and
maintenance personnel to restore an equipment item to full functionality as
originally designed or engineered?
Fault repair
Q- Which core
maintenance process involves problems that degrade equipment before they become
catastrophic?
Performance observation
Q- Which of the following assets are generally available to the
leadership in tactical environments?
Organic medical assets , Chaplains, Behavioral health assets
Organic medical assets , Chaplains, Behavioral health assets
Q- Which of the following choices may
prevent the individual from performing their duties or create a concern for
personal safety or the safety of others?
Severe stress reactions
Q- Which of the following choices is a form of combat and operational stress reaction (cosr) and most likely to occur in poorly trained undisciplined units?
Misconduct stress behavior
Severe stress reactions
Q- Which of the following choices is a form of combat and operational stress reaction (cosr) and most likely to occur in poorly trained undisciplined units?
Misconduct stress behavior
Q- Which of the following choices best
predicts combat resiliency?
Unit cohesion and morale
Unit cohesion and morale
Q- Which of the following choices may be
signaled by changes in behavior and discernible only to the individual soldier
or close comrades?
Mild stress reaction
Mild stress reaction
Q- ____ may develop after someone has
experienced or witnessed an actual or threatened traumatic event; it could lead
to an actual behavioral health(BH) diagnosis known as PTSD
Postcombat and operational stress
Postcombat and operational stress
Q- Which of the following choices
provide professional ministry support to leaders in fulfilling their combat and
operational stress identification and intervention responsibilities?
the unit ministry team (UMT)
the unit ministry team (UMT)
Q- . ________ ends when the organization is again prepared to
conduct collective training and operations
Recovery
Recovery
Q- Which of the following choices
comprise training domains?
operational, institutional and self-development
operational, institutional and self-development
Q- Training to reach an accepted
proficiency level is a tenet of which principle of training?
Training to standard
Training to standard
Q- Training under an expected operational environment for the
mission is a tenet of which principle of training?
Train as you will fight
Train as you will fight
Q- Unit training involves how many
principles?
11
11
Q- Which core maintenance process
involves reporting problems that degrade equipment before they become
catastrophic?
Performance observation
Performance observation
Q- Which core maintenance process
assures high quality and establishes a predictable service life using the best
technical standard?
Single-standard repair
Single-standard repair
Q- Which recovery operation involves
assistance from a second similar or heavier class vehicle?
Like recovery
Like recovery
Q- Which level of maintenance involves
off-system component repair and/or end item repair and return to the supply
system or, by exception, back to the owning unit, performed by national level
maintenance providers?
Sustainment maintenance
Sustainment maintenance
Q- Which of the following choices are
involved with recovery operations?
Dedicated recovery
Dedicated recovery
Q- Paragraphs and subparagraphs should
not be omitted. What should be entered if the information requested in specific
paragraphs or
subparagraphs
is not known unknown
Q- How many digits does the SIR number
always contain?
six–digit number
six–digit number
Q- Which core maintenance process uses
operator and maintenance personnel to restore an equipment item to full
functionality as originally designed or engineered?
Fault repair
Fault repair
Q- What are the two main sections of the
SIR?
Subject paragraph, 12 subparagraphs
Subject paragraph, 12 subparagraphs
Q- Which of the following choices are
gradually increased to produce the desired physiological effect?
Intensity (resistance and pace).
Exercise volume (number of sets and repetitions).
Duration (time)
Intensity (resistance and pace).
Exercise volume (number of sets and repetitions).
Duration (time)
Q- Which core maintenance process assures high quality and
establishes a predictable service life using the best technical standard?
single-standard repair
